How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

  • orcrist@lemm.ee
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    1 day ago

    Please read it all again. They didn’t rely on the conversion. It’s just a convenient way to create a counterexample.

    Anyway, here’s a simple equivalent. Let’s consider a number like pi except that wherever pi has a 9, this new number has a 1. This new number is infinite and doesn’t repeat. So it also answers the original question.

    • Umbrias@beehaw.org
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      1 day ago

      “please consider a number that isnt pi” so not relevant, gotcha. it does not answer the original question, this new number is not normal, sure, but that has no bearing on if pi is normal.