I can accept the fact that on a Roulette wheel (as long as there are no defects or imbalances in the wheel or ball) that the odds are the same each spin and previous spin outcomes have no influence over the current spin. However, if I see black come up 32 times in a row I am betting on red for the next spin.
That could be reasonable in certain scenarios, but that’s technically not the gambler’s fallacy anymore; at that point you’re talking about the “something specifically made it that way” I mentioned. I was talking about uniform/fair distribution of outcomes (part of the definition of the gambler’s fallacy), otherwise it’s just “hey, this distribution is lopsided as hell”.
Interesting! Thanks for the heads up.